Word Fact: What’s the Name for the Dot Over the i and j?

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While many languages, such as Arabic and Hebrew, add specific accents to the letters or characters throughout their alphabet, the English alphabet has only two letters that include a diacritic dot. This mark is added to a letter to signal a change in either the sound or meaning of a character. What is the additional name of this curious dot that hovers over the ninth and tenth lowercase letters of the English alphabet, and how did it get there?

The small distinguishing mark you see over a lowercase i and a lowercase j is called a tittle – an interesting name that seems like a portmanteau (combination) of “tiny” and “little,” and refers to a small point or stroke in writing and printing. Generally, a diacritic dot such as a tittle is also referred to as a glyph. However, in regards to i and j, the removal of the mark is still likely to be read as I or J; as such, these are not examples of a glyph.

Derived from the Latin word titulus, meaning “inscription, heading,” the tittle initially appeared in Latin manuscripts beginning in the 11th century as a way of individualizing the neighboring letters i and j in the thicket of handwriting. With the introduction of the Roman-style typeface in the late 1400′s, the original large mark was reduced to the small dot we use today.

Many alphabets use a tittle specifically in the case of the letter i. For example, the absence or presence of a tittle over the i in the modern Turkish alphabet, also Latin-based, helps to differentiate two unique letters that represent distinct phonemes.

The phrase “To a T” is believed to be derived from the word tittle and the following passage from Edward Hall’s Chronicles circa 1548: “I then… began to dispute with my selfe, little considerynge that thus my earnest was turned euen to a tittyl not so good as, estamen.”

Now that you’ve satisfied your desire to know the source of that little dot, consider this: Why does the letter Q almost never appear without a U right next to it? Find your answer, here.

What other mysteries of the alphabet would like us to explore? Let us know.

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  1. FiOS-Dave -  March 29, 2015 - 11:47 pm

    Does this mean that Yelberton Abraham’s last name is only a dot?
    Should it be written as YA dot, or Y.A.dot? Or do you need to scour all the character sets to find a dot that is in the superscript area?
    Inquiring minds want to know!

  2. Daya Ram Sharma -  March 29, 2015 - 11:16 am

    what’s the name for the double dot over O on “Schrödinger”

    • Terre Spencer -  July 1, 2015 - 6:26 am

      An umlaut.

  3. Mary -  January 22, 2015 - 10:57 am

    I actually already knew that, but I have been trying to find out what the line you use to cross a “t” is called. Does anybody know?

    • Evan -  January 27, 2015 - 6:41 pm

      a line

      • Meow -  January 29, 2015 - 12:33 am

        Lol ikr

      • Jordonomin -  February 11, 2015 - 2:42 pm

        thank you for showing us wisdom. you are the next buddha because you have enlightened us all.

    • B. Winn -  March 9, 2015 - 5:50 pm

      I think it’s called a tittle.

    • nick -  April 29, 2015 - 3:15 am

      A Crossbar.

  4. Darby -  January 9, 2015 - 2:10 pm

    That was interesting. I can’t wait to tell my classmates!

  5. Cody -  January 9, 2015 - 10:43 am

    Yes, it is tittle. It is not, however, 1400′s:

    It is 1400s. Just like with acronyms you don’t have the apostrophe. That means CDs and DVDs for two examples of many. Of course some Americans (I suppose that includes the author if this post (unless it was an honest mistake)) disagree here but they’re wrong. I can imagine they read it as: the 14 hundreds but you don’t write the fourteen hundred’s and neither do you write the hundred’s; you write fourteen hundreds (the word in question is hundreds) and hundreds. This is for maths (hundreds place) as well as hundreds of something (like in counting (which is sort of maths but semantics)). Therefore, it is 1400s.

    • Karen -  January 10, 2015 - 9:56 am

      Regarding 1400′s: The 1400′s is incorrect because the apostrophe always shows possession i.e., “That is Mary’s dog” (the dog belongs to Mary). The 1400s is simply plural.

      • dw -  January 16, 2015 - 6:01 am

        Not true. There is more than one school of thought regarding whether it is correct to use an apostrophe in this instance. Both -with and without the apostrophe- are considered acceptable. Incidentally, the apostrophe’s main function is to show possession, but that is not its only function.

    • Frank Casale -  April 13, 2015 - 7:45 am

      I enjoy reading your blogs, Cody. However, you lost me on this one!

    • raynard -  May 15, 2015 - 2:54 am

      Is the Fourteen Hundred S a Vauxhall or a Sprinter?

      Was the three hundred’s king named Leonidas?

      Did language serve its purpose, or do we need stringent adherence to excessive prescriptivism in order for you to understand the text?

      Your statement, “[o]f course some Americans [...] disagree here [...] but they’re wrong [sic],” seems to show rather clearly that you have thought very little about the evolution either of English specifically or of language in general. As such, you’ve missed the reasoning behind the allowance for the non-possessive apostrophe in the particular case of numbers.

      I personally prefer to omit it in this case as well, but 1400′s is presumably an abbreviation for “fifteenth century” here. Otherwise, no matter whether the apostrophe is included, it could mean 1400 through 1409 instead, in which case “late 1400s” could mean two very different things.

      In other words, don’t omit commas which are not debated, all the while complaining about usages which have alternate forms that have become acceptable for modern, historical, and logical reasons. Especially, don’t do that with an unnecessary and inappropriate jab at a particular cultural group.

      That would be like pointing out how ridiculous it is to abbreviate mathematics without using an apostrophe.

  6. Jenny -  January 8, 2015 - 9:14 am

    Perhaps this was addressed above, but if there’s a name for the dot over i and j, is there a name for the line across the t?

    • Thursday_Natam -  January 13, 2015 - 8:43 pm

      you mean some horizontal line that causes ‘l’ to transform into ‘t’?

      ‘l’ here doesn’t have a curve down there,
      please refer to any handwriting

      • Rahul Shah -  January 17, 2015 - 9:40 pm

        I think its like a horizontal line on capital letter L i know its not a curve but still we can consider that…

  7. Grebnekuts -  January 8, 2015 - 6:36 am

    Interesting info! Thanks for sharing.

    …also, as an FYI: your penultimate sentence (“What other mysteries…”) is missing the word “you.” (Thought you might want to know.)

  8. Wang Di -  January 7, 2015 - 8:13 am

    This is some very . . . “tittlating” information you got here.

    • Johnny -  January 8, 2015 - 7:20 am

      Good article. Should

      ” in the late 1400′s”

      Have an apostrophe?

      • joe -  January 8, 2015 - 1:19 pm


        • will ross -  January 12, 2015 - 9:32 am

          i need help!

        • jamal -  May 11, 2015 - 3:38 am


      • Dan -  January 8, 2015 - 3:12 pm

        No. It’s not a possessive. But what if the statement was The 1980′s clothing styles” ? (i.e. belonging to the 1980s)

        • Tony MacDonnell -  January 13, 2015 - 3:59 pm

          Perhaps, if you consider 1980′s as a contraction.

          The nineteen-eighty (to nineteen-eighty-nine year)s.
          The first two words being replaced by a number, and the bracketed phrase by an apostrophe before the “s”.

      • Trevor -  January 8, 2015 - 4:27 pm

        Though the use of the apostrophe is incorrect in plural forms, so “three dog’s appeared” is wrong, the letter s as a suffix is common, especially after a number, “He drove a Fiat 1100s… or 1100S”, so an apostrophe may add clarity in specific circumstances to make the plural sense clear. The old rules don’t cut it in this world of unspaced domain names and product names littered with extra qualifying letters and numbers, so maybe a plural apostrophe will evolve into accepted usage. The main priority is to express one’s meaning unambiguously. Some historic forms are found wanting, but we lack consistent remedies thus far.

  9. posters -  January 7, 2015 - 6:57 am

    Thanks for spreading this news. As a grad student, I suppose it’s going to happen at some point in my career and I’ll be vigilant.

  10. Janet -  January 6, 2015 - 11:05 pm

    When did “1400′s” get an apostrophe for a plural?

  11. jetsonpaul -  February 20, 2014 - 10:27 pm

    Seen this? FavoriteWords.com – Totally genius!

  12. ringing in ears hearing loss -  September 15, 2013 - 12:31 am

    Hmm it looks like your website ate my first
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  13. sudhir kumar -  September 5, 2013 - 8:20 am


  14. ravindra Paitl -  September 4, 2013 - 8:28 pm

    This is very interesting ……. Thanks for giving information like this…!!!

  15. newsroom minneapolis -  April 9, 2013 - 9:10 pm

    Whats up! I just wish to give a huge thumbs up for the nice information you’ve got right here
    on this post. I might be coming back to your weblog for more soon.

    • Trevor -  January 8, 2015 - 4:40 pm

      “Whats up!” is wrong on so many levels. “Whats” is short for “What is” so should be “What’s” and the exclamation mark is inappropriate as this is a question so needs one of these… ? Of course the question is rhetorical, else we might all reply “the sky”.
      Paradoxically, had you written “Wassup?” this neologism would have been acceptable as a slang expression. Likewise, “gonna” can stand in for “going to” in deliberate slang usage, e.g. I’m gonna get me a gun!

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  17. VIVIAN -  June 26, 2012 - 4:05 am


  18. VIVIAN -  June 26, 2012 - 4:03 am


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    Fantastic site you have here but I was wanting to know if you knew of any
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  20. Brian -  February 1, 2012 - 6:27 am

    Cyberquill could not think of a word with a triple tittle, how about Beijing.

    • Kenny -  January 9, 2015 - 2:09 pm

      For the record, let us not forget HIJINKS…

  21. MADHAV RAMIREDDY -  January 1, 2012 - 1:55 am


  22. Valérie -  April 10, 2011 - 9:01 am

    While this article helps me understand /i/ and /j/ typographically, I wonder about their differentiated pronunciation–especially with dramatic shifts from French and English to the “jota” of Spanish and its absence in Italian…

    Many thanks!

    • Trevor -  January 8, 2015 - 4:42 pm

      q.v. the Greek letter iota and the phrase “jot and tittle” in Matthew ch5 v18 KJV

  23. Squay -  April 9, 2011 - 2:06 am

    Most interesting. I love little tidbits like this.

    Visited all of the links provided. Interesting about portemanteau (French for “to carry” + “sleeveless cloak”) and its association with Lewis Carrol’s Jabberwocky. “Squay” is a portemanteau for “squared away”, a nickname I was given from fellow Marines while in Paris.

    I, already, have difficulty getting away from my computer due to Wikipedia’s links. Now, I can get lost in Dictionary.com’s links as well. Jeesh!

  24. Pinki -  April 8, 2011 - 9:21 pm

    Cool, I’ve never thought of those little dots and stuff! :)

  25. Dawn -  April 8, 2011 - 6:09 pm

    This is soo informative, thanks for telling this

  26. anon-i -  March 9, 2011 - 1:00 am

    Still don’t get it. Must be needing sleep, after 48 hours of work.
    Anyone care to add “in other words” to summarize this tldr article?

    • Trevor -  January 8, 2015 - 4:50 pm

      Briefly, in a long word in cursive writing, (imagine writing “His imminent imprecision was invincible”) single strokes letters, i and j, can get lost unless you give them a little beret to call out, “I’m here, don’t pass me by”.

  27. Pamela -  March 8, 2011 - 8:04 pm

    So, let me ask this question, then? If, after talking about the importance of the tittle on the “i” and how it serves to differentiate the “l” from the “i,” why are so many posters not capitalizing the “i” when necessary? Writing in all lower case letters is as egregious as using all capitals (which is screaming on the Internet). I would have hoped that here at a grammar site, I would have seen “I like this…,” rather than “i like this.” And, an occasional apostrophe — used correctly! — would also be nice to see; for a change.

  28. I'M KEWL YOUR NOT -  March 8, 2011 - 7:30 pm


  29. emily -  March 8, 2011 - 7:28 pm

    nice okkkkkk um i’ll keep that in mind……………

  30. Frank -  March 8, 2011 - 7:05 pm

    Thanks, this is good to know.
    I found a new favorite word…
    Tittle. :)

  31. unidentified. B) -  March 8, 2011 - 6:50 pm

    nice info. imma tell my teacher. :)

  32. uela mari -  March 8, 2011 - 6:16 pm

    more vocabz enrichment pleaaaaaaaaaaz!

  33. Cyberquill -  March 8, 2011 - 6:14 pm

    I’m not sure the double tittle on the i in “naïve” is an umlaut, strictly speaking, as “umlaut” means a change in the vowel sound versus its undotted version. The two dots on the i in “naïve” do not signify a sound change, only that the i is to be pronounced separately. I think the two dots on an i are a diaeresis rather than an umlaut.

  34. julia -  March 8, 2011 - 4:16 pm

    Wow i luv that cuz my name starts with j and also has an “i”

  35. Bryan H. Allen -  March 8, 2011 - 4:07 pm

    “Cyberquill”, “fern” was correct: The “i” in “naïve” is /called/ a dieresis. Though the dieresis and umlaut could be /described/ as a double tittle, that would be a non-standard name, which would tend to interfere with successful communication. (Ya, I do that “alot”.)

    Junoesque, your comment is similarly mistaken (but less so). The “dieresis” and “umlaut”(¨, ISO 8859-1 0168) share the same form but are distinct in function, like one of the differences between a “dash” and a “hyphen”. (The hyphen is a connector, http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/hyphen, but the dash[13] is a separator, http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/dash, regardless whether the same or a different character is used: 45, 0150 or 0151 in Windows-1252.) The dieresis serves to avoid orthographic (spelling) ambiguity amongst two letters, while the umlaut serves to mark a phonetic and phonemic change in the symbolism of one letter which the orthography otherwise would not reveal.

    Specifically, the dieresis, like a short dash (-), serves to separate /two abutting letters/, to mark them as not a digraph, http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/digraph, to mark them as pronounced individually. In the cited example, naïve is pronounced /naiv/ in French (four phonemes), but naive /would/ be pronounced as /nɛv/ (three phonemes). (The French /ɛ/ is pronounced somewhat like the letter “e” in the English word “never”, but the tongue position is not centralized, as the English “e” is somewhat.) If the dieresis were not used, then a short dash (-) would be used to serve the same function. (One archaic spelling of the English word “cooperate” is “coöperate”; like “co-operate”, it serves to teach the correct pronunciation—not /kuˡɒpɚet/! It’s “too bad” that the English word “dieresis” itself may not be spelled “diëresis” to teach its pronunciation.)

    In contrast, the “umlaut” marks that the /single letter/ which bears it undergoes a shift of the tongue position, from a “back vowel” to a “front vowel” substantially /without a change in the rounding of the lips/. Thus „ü‟ is pronounced the same as „u‟ in respect to the height of the tongue and the rounding of the lips, but the tongue’s highest point is instead in the extreme front of the mouth, the same as „i‟, not the back of the mouth, as in „u‟. Compare “ablaut”, http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/ablaut.

    (I hope those 226 words in two paragraphs finally explained it!)

    Filtrono Vendicatore, “close” (/klos/, the adjective) means that the top of the tongue is held /close/ to the roof of the mouth.

    “Front” means that the highest point of the top of the tongue is in the front of the mouth, not the “middle”, “center” or “back” of the mouth. (The mouth’s phonetic extremities in pronouncing vowels are said to be “high”, “low”, “front”, and “back”. “Center” lies between those extremes. Latin, Italian and Spanish have no “central” vowel—or symbol for one! The position of the tongue’s highest point most affects the vowel’s tamber/timbre—or sound quality.)

    “Unrounded” means that the lips are not rounded. The vowel “u”/«u», in both English and Italian, is pronounced with the lips rounded. In private, try pronouncing it while smiling/grinning. Seriously! Use a mirror if you must! If you do that successfully, the result is the sound ɯ instead of u. Việt-Nam-ese is one language which has such a distinct sound, spelled ư with a “horn”, as in ngữ, “language”.

    The foreign ɯ is the “close, back, UNrounded vowel”, and the familiar u is the “close, back, Rounded vowel”. The “close, front, unrounded vowel” is [i]. (In English, it is variously spelled “e”, “ee”, “ie”, inter alia. Lucky you: it is spelled correctly in your ancestral language!)

    (“Internet” and—in isolation—“Web” are not proper nouns; therefore, they should not be spelled capitalized. However, “World Wide Web” is a proper name of the W3C, http://WWW.W3.org/.)

    (I hope those 242 words in five paragraphs answered your questions!)

    “Elishamod”, you made me think, thank you. I agree almost 100%.

    However, even in Tiberian (Masoretic) Hebrew, the distinction of the «ּ» (dâghêsh and mappîq, both decimal 1468) was phonemic, even where it does not mark gemination. (Schramm’s 1964 /The Graphemes of Tiberian Hebrew/ told me that nearly 3 decades ago. Cf. http://En.WikiPedia.org/wiki/Dagesh, http://En.WikiPedia.org/wiki/Mappiq and http://WWW.UniCode.org/charts/PDF/U0590.pdf, hexadecimal 05BC. The dâghêsh and mappîq, like the hyphen and short dash, are functionally distinct.) However, the distinction almost never changes a word’s root; thus, anyone who can read unvoweled Hebrew (not I!) in most circumstances could infer which word was intended.

    In contrast, the one-to-three dots in Arabic (one to four in Indo-European Urdû) do change the word’s root. The ambiguity resulting from their omission (as in the Qur’ân as initially written) would be critical.

    However, I did not know that the single, integral, superscript dots in Latin scripts are called *tittles*. Thank you! (_Phew!_ Today, not having to insert many right-to-left characters spared me hours of extra work!)

  36. Homer -  March 8, 2011 - 3:44 pm


  37. preeti -  March 8, 2011 - 1:52 pm

    Great ! Good to know !!!!

  38. ScottinVA -  March 8, 2011 - 1:42 pm

    C, Q, and X are useless letters.
    Let’s change them to say “Ch”, “Th” and “Sh” respectively.
    We should keep the tittles, though.

  39. JJ Rousseau -  March 8, 2011 - 12:52 pm

    Tittle tattle titillate, dot your eye and cure your hate.

  40. aa fasina thomas -  March 8, 2011 - 12:03 pm

    An educative research. However, be informed that we use tittle too in Yoruba alphabets. For instance, we slam a dot under “s” to pronounce “sh”. Yoruba? Well, that’s a language in the West African country of Nigeria.

  41. Aek Rebzani(Algeria) -  March 8, 2011 - 11:04 am

    Thanks a lot. It’s good to know that

  42. ✿D.C✿ -  March 8, 2011 - 10:55 am

    I am going to use the word tittle from now on. It’s cute. :D

  43. Filtrono Vendicatore -  March 8, 2011 - 10:25 am

    Also, “book,” “television,” “play,” and other forms of media aren’t proper nouns, so why are “Internet” and “World Wide Web” (or “Web”) proper nouns, and may they one day lose the distinction?

  44. Filtrono Vendicatore -  March 8, 2011 - 10:18 am

    Please explain the following:

    “close front unrounded vowel”
    “close back unrounded vowel”

  45. sonia -  March 8, 2011 - 9:20 am


  46. ashley -  March 8, 2011 - 9:14 am


  47. Junoesque -  March 8, 2011 - 9:05 am

    @ Cyberquill

    The mark (¨) used as a diacritic over the vowels ä, ö, ü, and ï is called an umlaut [oo m- lout] . :)

    Anyway, now I know what the single dot is called. Tittle it is. ;)

  48. Nelson -  March 8, 2011 - 8:26 am

    The little “titttle” is NOT a characteristic of the English language, but of all Latin based languages (Romanian, Spanish, French, Italian, Portuguese). If the author of this little blurb had done his homework he would have found out this basic issue.
    English, derived from low-class German, adopted a more civilized approach in the 13th century. In fact, the Magna Carta was written in Latin for the Saxon language was nothing but a barbarian speech, unworthy of writing.

  49. Rich -  March 8, 2011 - 8:24 am

    Brilliant article – I’m not sure if you’ve covered it beforehand, but I’ve always been curious as to the positioning of /i/ in spelling and grammar. Perhaps too deep a history for a 750 word article, but it was worth a try =P

  50. jeddan -  March 8, 2011 - 7:38 am


  51. Wrasfish -  March 8, 2011 - 7:31 am

    What? The tittles were placed there to differentiate “i” and “j” from what? Each other? Or to make them stand out in the middle of a lot of sloppy handwriting? If so, what makes “i” more special than any other vowel, and why does “j”, which appears so rarely anyway, need such special attention?

    Joe, you obviously read this far yourself, and saw fit to write a comment, such as it was.

    Grawr, before you talk about tittles, you had better read up on “jot”.

  52. Kari -  March 8, 2011 - 7:11 am

    I have a question. Why does the letter K have the two strokes in addition to the one initial upright stroke? As a calligrapher I’m always fascinated about letters and I thoroughly enjoyed this article. Thank you for sharing it. Now I can go out and win friends and impress people with my vast knowledge. K

  53. dinesh vaishnaw -  March 8, 2011 - 6:53 am

    good information.

  54. the _Truth -  March 8, 2011 - 6:48 am

    he is right the guy above i know u could come up something better this the truth is tis article sucks

  55. CJones -  March 8, 2011 - 6:34 am

    tittle lou to you too.

  56. jomamma -  March 8, 2011 - 6:32 am

    this article bores me

  57. louis paiz -  March 8, 2011 - 6:30 am

    let me retype in english i don’t know the name of them but in spanish they are called ierissis they also are used on top of the letter u as in guisquil always used with the letter g for those sounds i would like to learn more about it in english,also the letter y as in you and the sound of the greek i in key. thanks

  58. eirvhoy -  March 8, 2011 - 5:51 am

    OooooH….. i didn’t know that tittle has its own origin,
    new discovery for me…^_^

  59. louis paiz -  March 8, 2011 - 4:55 am

    in english i don’t know in spanish are called ierises i assume that they are the same used in spanish on top of the letter u as in guisqil
    i would like to learn more about it.also about the difference between y as i you and the letter y in greek i. thanks

  60. Vmh -  March 8, 2011 - 3:52 am

    The Hot Word, is now one of my favourite tittle to visit every day! I am looking forward to reading, & learning more “uncommon” words in the future!!! Keep it up!

  61. fern -  March 7, 2011 - 11:44 pm

    Cyberquill: the i in naïve is called a diaeresis or umlaut in German.

  62. grawr -  March 7, 2011 - 11:32 pm

    Ahhhhhhhhh!!!! hahahahaha i now know what it means!! buwahahahaha.. im going to use it in school now!!! hahahha

  63. Blinky Billy -  March 7, 2011 - 11:26 pm

    OK, I admit it, I did SOME mistakes…

  64. yves -  March 7, 2011 - 10:44 pm


  65. Tam -  March 7, 2011 - 10:42 pm

    Well, I guess I’m just a HUMONGOUS NERD!!!! (And uber-proud of it!) ^_^
    Soyyyyy un perdedorrrrrr! I’m a loser babyyyyy…

  66. Elishamod -  March 7, 2011 - 9:44 pm

    Actually, in Hebrew we use diacritic dots only when we want to “stress” the sound, like turning a ב (sounds like v) to a בּ (b). In Arabic, the diacritic dots are paramount, because without them the letter is completely different. In Hebrew we can omit the diacritic dot, and a trained reader would understand us. In Arabic, we cannot omit the diacritic dot.

  67. Pumkin Girl -  March 7, 2011 - 7:53 pm

    This Website os really sweet. Thankyou to all the poeple who make this website so special. Love You Guys. oxoxoxoxoxox

  68. joe -  March 7, 2011 - 3:49 pm

    also, I DON’T CARE!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

  69. Hi -  March 7, 2011 - 3:46 pm

    That was interesting!!!!!!

  70. Cyberquill -  March 7, 2011 - 3:32 pm

    The “i” in “naï ve” has a double-tittle. Off the cuff, I can’t think of a word with a triple-tittle.

  71. me! -  March 7, 2011 - 3:18 pm

    I knew it was called a tittle but never knew they story behind the name!

  72. Blake Snow -  March 7, 2011 - 3:09 pm

    The Hot Word is quickly becoming my favorite blog. Tittles!

  73. Chuck Norris -  March 7, 2011 - 2:45 pm

    Well, Thanks Ranger!

    Y’all sure one of those mighty thinkers eh? I wasn’t much of them varmints but if y’all ever need me to rassel up some varmints then call me

  74. Mel -  March 7, 2011 - 2:11 pm

    Why did they place the line in the letter Q in that position?

  75. bubbles -  March 7, 2011 - 2:07 pm

    oooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooookkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaayyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyy then.

  76. Nicolas WithoutanH -  March 7, 2011 - 1:45 pm

    Thanks for this information! It sure did “tittle-ate” me!
    Regarding the other Mysteries surrounding the Alphabet; I always wanted to know about the letter Y! Why is it prounounced “why” when there are no “y” sounds in how you say it! Why is “y” so!

  77. jennifer -  March 7, 2011 - 1:11 pm

    i like that one because my name starts with a j

  78. the epicness that is me -  March 7, 2011 - 1:08 pm

    wow. am i the only one that read this?

  79. Gitanjali R. Vaswani -  March 7, 2011 - 1:04 pm

    This was indeed informative!! thanks for sharing!! would certainly love to know more and even more!! :)


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